Acoustic Neuroma

The term "acoustic neuroma" is actually a misnomer since the tumor never arises from the acoustic division of the vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII) and the tumor is not a neuroma but a schwannoma.

Acoustic neuroma (or Vestibular Schwannoma) is a benign primary intracranial tumor, or brain tumor, of the myelin forming cells called "Schwann cells" (Schwannoma) of the 8th cranial nerve -also known as the acoustic nerve, (or more properly the vestibulocochlear nerve).

The vast majority (95%) of these tumors are sporadic, meaning they are not passed on through genes. Sporatic tumors occur in only one ear, and there are no known risk factors. Rarely these tumors are associated with a genetic disease called Neurofibromatosis Type II. Patients with Neurofibromatosis develop tumors at a younger age, usually have tumors on both sides and also have other manifestations, including benign tumors of the brain and dura (the covering of the brain).

Vestibular Schwannomas are generally slow growing (less than 3 millimeters per year) and may not grow at all if followed over time. However, tumor growth is not predictable, and some tumors grow more rapidly. When tumors are small they may give no symptoms or very subtle symptoms, such as a slight hearing loss or a noise in the ear (tinnitus). When tumors grow, they begin to cause injury to the hearing nerve and balance nerve, by compressing them. Patients may experience severe hearing loss (either suddenly or progressively over a period of years) or balance problems. Large tumors may compress the brainstem and result in headaches and other symptoms of increased intracranial pressure. Symptoms don't correlate well with size. Some patients with very small tumors may have obvious symptoms and likewise, some patients with large tumors may have no symptoms at all.

The diagnosis of Vestibular Schwannoma is made by history, hearing tests, and MRI scan. Gadolinium is a special contrast agent used during the MRI to allow visualization of the tumors. With good technique, MRI will show tumors as small as 2-4 millimeters.

Anemia of Chronic Disease

( I am bit confused now about this term,yet I will try to find more references and EDIT this later- author of blog ) Thank You.

Some believe that the name of this type of anemia is a misnomer and misleading. They prefer to call it “anemia of defective iron reutilization.”

Iron utilization is the iron that appears in red blood cells (RBC) after intravenous (IV) injection of radioactive inorganic iron into the circulation, whereas iron reutilization is the iron that appears in the RBC after IV injection of organic radioactive iron compounds such as hemoglobin.

The studies quoted in the review showing normal release of iron from the reticuloendothelial system (RES) to the circulating transfemn (Tf) ofpatients with rheumatoid arthritis are not convincing to me because the total iron released in the circulation from the RES was not determined by measurement of the actual blood volume.

In addition, patients with rheumatoid arthritis are notorious for having many causes of their anemia and one has to be very selective in studying ACD in this group of patients. The fact that patients with ACD respond to recombinant erythropoietin (EPO) does not rule out the defective release mechanism of iron from the RES in ACD. EPO in the dosage used may also act on the RES and enhance the release of iron. We have shown that testosterone, known to act on RBC precursors in patients with aplastic anemia, also acts on the RES to increase the release of iron in vivo and in vitro. The anemia and iron reutilization of patients with primary defective iron reutilization were corrected after testosterone therapy.Testosterone added in vitro to cultures of macrophages containing Fe-tagged RBC increased the release of iron to the media: and when the male hormone was injected into mice, it expanded the Tf pool in their macrophages, which I believe is a preliminary step for the release of iron from these cells.’ I think these studies could be repeated using EPO instead of testosterone to settle this point.

taken from http://bloodjournal.hematologylibrary.org/cgi/reprint/81/4/1108.pdf

Bronchial Adenoma

The term bronchial adenoma is a misnomer. As even though being ADENOMA, it has malignant potential.

Bronchial adenomas are a histologically and clinically diverse group of respiratory tract neoplasms arising from mucous glands and ducts of the tracheobronchial tree. They represent 1% of pulmonary malignancies. The traditional concept of a single, histologically benign form is challenged and the malignant potential of these tumors is stressed.

Three main cell types with their characteristic histopathologic and clinical features are discussed: carcinoid, adenoid cystic carcinoma, and mucoepidermoid carcinoma.

A case of bronchial carcinoid with hepatic metastases is reported, emphasizing the malignant potential of this controversial group of tumors. The appropriate diagnostic evaluation is outlined and aggressive surgical management is stressed. Chemotherapy and radiation therapy which are reserved mainly for palliation do not add to overall five year survival rates.

PCOS: Poly Cystic Ovary Syndrome

The name “polycystic ovaries” is somewhat of a misnomer and a nonspecific term. Women with PCOS have enlarged ovaries with tiny asymptomatic cysts seen on ultrasound. It also happens that 25 percent of normal women have ovaries that appear polycystic in ultrasound appearance, so the diagnosis cannot be made by ultrasound appearance alone.

PCOS is the most common hormonal disorder of reproductive-age women; it affects approximately 5 percent of the population or one in twenty women. Despite this, PCOS remains largely unknown, even by the women who have the syndrome. PCOS is characterized by irregular menstrual periods; unwanted hair growth; being overweight (in more than half of the cases)’ difficulty in becoming pregnant; oily skin and/or acne.

PCOS is treatable through diet, exercise and medication, most often a combination of the three.

Sebaceous Cyst

Sebaceous cyst is actually a misnomer, since these cysts do not arise from sebaceous glands. The correct name is epidermoid cyst. You will also see "epidermal inclusion cyst" commonly used, but epidermoid cyst is the more general and preferred term.

They are produced when epidermal cells (from the outermost layer of the skin) become implanted within the deeper layer of the skin, the dermis. Subsequent shedding of dead epidermal skin cells into a closed space within the dermis leads to an accumulation of cheesy material that may leak to the surface of the skin. They range in size from a couple of millimeters to over an inch in diameter, and are typically firm, round, mobile under the skin, and are usually slow-growing and painless. They can become infected however, which usually leads to removal. Their color ranges from yellow to white.

The most common areas where these occur are the face, trunk, neck, extremities, and scalp, but these cysts can occur anywhere there is skin. Removal is indicated for cosmetic reasons, or if a cyst becomes infected.

Lupus Anticoagulant

The name "lupus anticoagulant" is a misnomer because most patients with a lupus anticoagulant do not actually have lupus erythematosus and it is not actually an ANTICOAGULANT....and only a small proportion actually develop this disease of SLE..

Aseptic meningitis

Aseptic meningitis is a misnomer, but it is a term used clinically to designate an illness comprising meningeal irritation, fever, and alterations of consciousness of relatively acute onset, generally of viral but rarely of bacterial or other etiology. It is called ASEPTIC because no bacteria are found on Staining but it is infective condition in hte real sence.


The clinical course is less fulminant than that observed in pyogenic meningitis, and the CSF findings also differ between the two conditions. There is a lymphocytic pleocytosis, the protein elevation is only moderate, and the sugar content is nearly always normal. The viral aseptic meningitides are usually self-limiting and are treated symptomatically. In approximately 70% of cases, a pathogen can be identified, most commonly an enterovirus. Echovirus, coxsackievirus, and nonparalytic poliomyelitis are responsible for up to 80% of these cases.

Tumor Suppressor Genes

In a sense, the term tumor-suppressor genes is a misnomer because the physiologic function of these genes is to regulate cell growth, not to prevent tumor formation.

Because the loss of these genes is a key event in many, possibly all, human tumors and because their discovery resulted from the study of tumors, the names tumor suppressor and antioncogene persist.

Erythroleukemia

M6 AML, so-called erythroleukemia, is somewhat of a misnomer. In this subtype, greater than 50% of the cells are erythroid progenitors, and among the nonerythroid nucleated cells, greater than 30% of the cellularity is composed of myeloblasts.

Osteoarthritis

The term osteoarthritis is a misnomer, because inflammation is not the primary pathologic process observed in this form of articular joint disruption.

More accurately described as degenerative joint disease, the disease represents a final common pathway of injury to articular cartilage. Although the true nature and cause of osteoarthritis are unclear, radiographic findings and gross and microscopic pathologic features are fairly typical in most cases.

Prostatodynia

The term "prostatodynia" is a misnomer, as the prostate is actually normal.

Prostatodynia is a noninflammatory disorder that affects young and middle-aged men and has variable causes, including voiding dysfunction and pelvic floor musculature dysfunction.

Dyshidrotic eczema

Dyshidrotic eczema is the term used for POMPHOLYX or VESICULOBULLOUS HAND ECZEMA or DYSHIDROSIS..

"Dyshidrotic eczema" is a misnomer, suggesting that the vesicles of this condition are related to eccrine sweat ducts and sweating, which they are not.

This is an extremely common form of hand dermatitis, preferably called pompholyx (Gr "bubble") or vesiculobullous dermatitis of the palms and soles. Patients often have an atopic background and report flares with stress. Patients with widespread dermatitis due to any cause may develop pompholyx-like eruptions as a part of an autoeczematization response.

Medical Clearance

Medical Clearance is the term sometimes used for PreOperative Risk Clearence of Patient before Aurgery but frequently used term medical clearance is a misnomer because a complete perioperative evaluation should serve three purposes:

1.Assessing the patient's incremental risk of death or serious morbidity as a consequence of (potentially not yet diagnosed) cardiovascular conditions during surgery or the postoperative period.

2.Minimizing the risk of these adverse cardiovascular events through medical, behavioral and (rarely) invasive measures.

3.Using the opportunity to alter cardiovascular risk and disease progression, independent of the upcoming surgery.

Cystic Medial Necrosis and Medionecrosis

Cystic Medial Necrosis and Medionecrosis are misnomers because there are no true cystic lesions in the former, and actual necrosis is rare in both.

Bicuspid Aortic Valve

The term bicuspid aortic valve is actually a misnomer; a raphe caused by commissural fusion of two leaflets usually exists. The valve is often dysplastic, with thickening and rolling of the leaflets.

The predominant pathophysiology results from a mildly obstructed nonlaminar (disturbed) flow across the abnormal valve. A left ventricle-to-aorta pressure gradient of variable severity occurs, setting the stage for the inevitable deterioration of the valve with long-term calcium deposition and progressive stenosis or regurgitation. In a study of young adults with aortic stenosis who presented for surgery between the ages of 21 and 38, diastolic murmurs were audible in 75%, and calcification was found at surgery in 75%. The valve is also at risk for endocarditis, which can lead to early destruction and regurgitation.

Pulsus paradoxus

The term is actually something of a misnomer because the paradoxical pulse represents an exaggeration of the normal small decline in systolic arterial pressure that occurs during inspiration.

Tripod Fracture

The zygomatic complex, also known as the trimalar complex, is a facial bone commonly injured in low-velocity trauma. Lateral trauma will sometimes produce an isolated zygomatic arch fracture; however, more severe force can fracture the entire zygomatic complex.

Although commonly referred to as a "tripod" fracture, this name is a misnomer: a zygomatic complex fracture constitutes four discrete fractures.

The components of this fracture are

(1) the zygomatic arch,

(2) the orbital rim,

(3) the frontozygomatic buttress, and

(4) the zygomatico-maxillary buttress.

Skull Base Surgery

Although in widespread use, the term "skull base surgery" is a somewhat of a misnomer. Only a minority of such procedures is undertaken to expose lesions actually located primarily within the skull base. The majority of procedures is conducted to expose deep-seated intracranial lesions situated either adjacent to the brainstem (eg, midbrain, pons, or medulla) or beneath the cerebral cortex.

Previously, many such tumors were approached via simple openings in the calvaria, which requires vigorous and often injurious degrees of brain retraction.

The fundamental principle in transbasal craniotomy is removal of the skull base bone in order to minimize the need for brain retraction. Although current techniques represent a major enhancement in our ability to control inaccessible tumors while minimizing morbidity, they are not panaceas. For example, experience has shown that these procedures are far more suitable for benign lesions (eg, meningiomas, schwannomas, and paragangliomas) and even for low-grade malignant growths (eg, chordomas and chondrosarcomas) than they are for high-grade malignant lesions (eg, squamous cell carcinoma, adenocystic carcinoma, and soft tissue sarcomas). Currently, more emphasis is placed on the preservation of function, especially cranial nerves, than on the necessity for radical resection in every case. The value of neurophysiologic nerve monitoring for motor nerves within the surgical field has become well established. In the developmental years of skull base surgery, two-stage procedures were common. More recently, single-stage procedures have become preferred in most centers, even for tumors with sizable intra- and extracranial components, as well as those involving multiple cranial fossae. Computerized imaging modalities provide localizing information that guides the surgeon around vital structures and helps to enable thorough tumor removal.

NonSpecific or Solitary Rectal or Colon Ulcer

Nonspecifc ulceration of the colon and rectum is a clinical entity characterized by ulceration in various segments of the large intestine and rectum.

The common term “solitary ulceration” is a misnomer, as ulcers may be multiple. Rectal ulcers account for 5% of solitary ulcers, with the remainder occurring in the cecum (45%), ascending colon (20%), and sigmoid (16%).

Three distinct syndromes are seen:

Nonspecific colonic ulcers,

Dieulafoy-type ulcer, and

Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome.

Infantile myofibromatosis

The name infantile myofibromatosis is a misnomer because the most common form of this disorder is solitary, not multicentric as the name implies.

Infantile myofibromatosis is a benign neoplasm of infancy, usually present at birth. Clinically it presents as a solitary nodule 70-80 percent of the time, most commonly on the head, neck and trunk. The multicentric forms may have visceral involvement with an increase in mortality. Histology shows an unencapsulated, well-circumscribed lobule of peripheral spindle cells, resembling smooth muscle. A central area with blood vessels surrounded by small rounded cells is also often seen, giving infantile myofibromatosis its biphasic appearance. Treatment has traditionally consisted of radical excision, but recent evidence shows that solitary lesions may regress. Therefore, a watch and wait approach may be warranted in certain cases .